100+ NEET PG Previous Year MCQs

Anatomy

Cardiovascular System

Question 1: Which structure prevents backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium?

• A) Aortic valve
• B) Mitral valve
• C) Pulmonary valve
• D) Tricuspid valve
  Answer: B) Mitral valve

Question 2: The sinoatrial node is located in which part of the heart?

• A) Right atrium
• B) Left atrium
• C) Right ventricle
• D) Left ventricle
  Answer: A) Right atrium

Question 3: Which artery supplies blood to the left ventricle?

• A) Left anterior descending artery
• B) Right coronary artery
• C) Circumflex artery
• D) Pulmonary artery
  Answer: A) Left anterior descending artery

Nervous System

Question 4: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for:

• A) Sensory perception
• B) Motor coordination
• C) Visual processing
• D) Language comprehension
  Answer: B) Motor coordination

Question 5: Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

• A) Trigeminal (V)
• B) Facial (VII)
• C) Vagus (X)
• D) Hypoglossal (XII)
  Answer: B) Facial (VII)

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT a part of the brainstem?

• A) Medulla oblongata
• B) Pons
• C) Thalamus
• D) Midbrain
  Answer: C) Thalamus

Physiology

Respiratory Physiology

Question 7: Which gas has the most significant effect on the respiratory drive in healthy individuals?

• A) Oxygen
• B) Carbon dioxide
• C) Nitrogen
• D) Carbon monoxide
  Answer: B) Carbon dioxide

Question 8: Surfactant production in the lungs begins during which week of gestation?

• A) 12 weeks
• B) 20 weeks
• C) 26 weeks
• D) 32 weeks
  Answer: C) 26 weeks

Question 9: Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for the control of breathing?

• A) Thalamus
• B) Hypothalamus
• C) Medulla oblongata
• D) Cerebellum
  Answer: C) Medulla oblongata

Renal Physiology

Question 10: Aldosterone acts primarily on which part of the nephron?

• A) Proximal convoluted tubule
• B) Distal convoluted tubule
• C) Loop of Henle
• D) Collecting duct
  Answer: B) Distal convoluted tubule

Question 11: The primary site of filtration in the kidney is:

• A) Bowman’s capsule
• B) Loop of Henle
• C) Distal tubule
• D) Collecting duct
  Answer: A) Bowman’s capsule

Question 12: Which hormone is responsible for increasing water reabsorption in the collecting duct?

• A) ADH
• B) Renin
• C) Aldosterone
• D) ANP
  Answer: A) ADH

Pathology

Cardiovascular Pathology

Question 13: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of rheumatic heart disease?

• A) Myocardial infarction
• B) Valvular stenosis and regurgitation
• C) Aortic aneurysm
• D) Pulmonary embolism
  Answer: B) Valvular stenosis and regurgitation

Question 14: Atherosclerosis typically involves which part of the artery?

• A) Tunica intima
• B) Tunica media
• C) Tunica adventitia
• D) Perivascular tissue
  Answer: A) Tunica intima

Question 15: Which of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

• A) High HDL cholesterol
• B) Low LDL cholesterol
• C) Smoking
• D) High fiber diet
  Answer: C) Smoking

Gastrointestinal Pathology

Question 16: Which of the following is characteristic of Crohn’s disease?

• A) Continuous mucosal inflammation
• B) Granulomas
• C) Absence of skip lesions
• D) Confined to the colon
  Answer: B) Granulomas

Question 17: Hepatitis B virus primarily affects which organ?

• A) Heart
• B) Lungs
• C) Liver
• D) Kidneys
  Answer: C) Liver

Question 18: Which of the following markers is most indicative of acute liver cell injury?

• A) ALT
• B) Albumin
• C) Bilirubin
• D) Alkaline phosphatase
  Answer: A) ALT

Pharmacology

Antibiotics

Question 19: Which antibiotic is known to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

• A) Penicillin
• B) Erythromycin
• C) Amoxicillin
• D) Gentamicin
  Answer: D) Gentamicin

Question 20: Which drug is primarily used for treating MRSA infections?

• A) Amoxicillin
• B) Vancomycin
• C) Ciprofloxacin
• D) Tetracycline
  Answer: B) Vancomycin

Question 21: Which antibiotic class works by inhibiting protein synthesis at the ribosomal level?

• A) Penicillins
• B) Tetracyclines
• C) Cephalosporins
• D) Quinolones
  Answer: B) Tetracyclines

Antifungals

Question 22: Amphotericin B is primarily used to treat which of the following infections?

• A) Bacterial
• B) Viral
• C) Fungal
• D) Protozoal
  Answer: C) Fungal

Question 23: Azoles inhibit the synthesis of which component in fungal cell membranes?

• A) Glucan
• B) Ergosterol
• C) Chitin
• D) Lipopolysaccharide
  Answer: B) Ergosterol

Question 24: Fluconazole is most effective against which of the following?

• A) Candida species
• B) Plasmodium falciparum
• C) Staphylococcus aureus
• D) E. coli
  Answer: A) Candida species

Microbiology

Bacteriology

Question 25: Which Gram-positive cocci is known for its resistance to methicillin?

• A) Streptococcus pyogenes
• B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
• C) Staphylococcus aureus
• D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  Answer: C) Staphylococcus aureus

Question 26: Which bacterium is commonly associated with peptic ulcer disease?

• A) Salmonella typhi
• B) Helicobacter pylori
• C) Escherichia coli
• D) Shigella dysenteriae
  Answer: B) Helicobacter pylori

Question 27: The primary route of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:

• A) Fecal-oral
• B) Sexual contact
• C) Respiratory droplets
• D) Vector-borne
  Answer: C) Respiratory droplets

Virology

Question 28: The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which type of cancer?

• A) Lung cancer
• B) Colorectal cancer
• C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
• D) Ovarian cancer
  Answer: C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Question 29: Which of the following viruses is a common cause of bronchiolitis in infants?

• A) Influenza virus
• B) Respiratory syncytial virus
• C) Adenovirus
• D) Rotavirus
  Answer: B) Respiratory syncytial virus

Question 30: Varicella-zoster virus remains latent in which type of tissue?

• A) Lymphoid tissue
• B) Bone marrow
• C) Sensory ganglia
• D) Liver cells
  Answer: C) Sensory ganglia

Pharmacology

Analgesics

Question 31: Which of the following drugs is classified as a COX-2 selective NSAID?

• A) Ibuprofen
• B) Diclofenac
• C) Celecoxib
• D) Aspirin
  Answer: C) Celecoxib

Question 32: Which opioid analgesic is used in the management of both moderate to severe pain and opioid dependence?

• A) Morphine
• B) Methadone
• C) Codeine
• D) Tramadol
  Answer: B) Methadone

Question 33: Which medication is commonly used to reverse opioid overdose?

• A) Naloxone
• B) Naltrexone
• C) Flumazenil
• D) Diazepam
  Answer: A) Naloxone

Antihypertensives

Question 34: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of:

• A) Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
• B) Renin to Angiotensin I
• C) Angiotensin II to Aldosterone
• D) Aldosterone to Cortisol
  Answer: A) Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

Question 35: Which of the following is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hypertension?

• A) Amlodipine
• B) Losartan
• C) Metoprolol
• D) Furosemide
  Answer: C) Metoprolol

Question 36: Which class of drugs is primarily indicated for the treatment of heart failure and hypertension?

• A) Diuretics
• B) Antibiotics
• C) Antifungals
• D) Antivirals
  Answer: A) Diuretics

Pathology

Hematology

Question 37: Which of the following findings is commonly associated with iron deficiency anemia?

• A) Macrocytic red blood cells
• B) Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells
• C) Normal-sized red blood cells
• D) Target cells
  Answer: B) Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT a feature of aplastic anemia?

• A) Pancytopenia
• B) Hypercellular bone marrow
• C) Increased risk of infections
• D) Reduced hemoglobin
  Answer: B) Hypercellular bone marrow

Question 39: The Philadelphia chromosome is most commonly associated with which leukemia?

• A) Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
• B) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
• C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
• D) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
  Answer: B) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

Gastrointestinal Pathology

Question 40: The most common type of esophageal carcinoma worldwide is:

• A) Squamous cell carcinoma
• B) Adenocarcinoma
• C) Small cell carcinoma
• D) Large cell carcinoma
  Answer: A) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 41: Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of “skip lesions”?

• A) Ulcerative colitis
• B) Crohn’s disease
• C) Diverticulitis
• D) Irritable bowel syndrome
  Answer: B) Crohn’s disease

Question 42: A high serum amylase level is most likely indicative of:

• A) Liver disease
• B) Pancreatitis
• C) Gastric ulcer
• D) Hepatitis
  Answer: B) Pancreatitis

Microbiology

Parasitology

Question 43: Malaria is transmitted by which of the following vectors?

• A) Aedes mosquito
• B) Culex mosquito
• C) Anopheles mosquito
• D) Tsetse fly
  Answer: C) Anopheles mosquito

Question 44: Which stage of Plasmodium falciparum is primarily responsible for the clinical manifestations of malaria?

• A) Sporozoite
• B) Gametocyte
• C) Merozoite
• D) Trophozoite
  Answer: D) Trophozoite

Question 45: Giardiasis is primarily acquired through:

• A) Fecal-oral transmission
• B) Respiratory droplets
• C) Blood transfusion
• D) Skin contact
  Answer: A) Fecal-oral transmission

Mycology

Question 46: Cryptococcus neoformans primarily affects which organ in immunocompromised patients?

• A) Lungs
• B) Kidneys
• C) Liver
• D) Brain
  Answer: D) Brain

Question 47: Candidiasis is commonly caused by which of the following organisms?

• A) Aspergillus fumigatus
• B) Candida albicans
• C) Histoplasma capsulatum
• D) Cryptococcus neoformans
  Answer: B) Candida albicans

Question 48: Which of the following infections is typically diagnosed with a KOH (potassium hydroxide) preparation?

• A) Tuberculosis
• B) Candidiasis
• C) Leptospirosis
• D) Toxoplasmosis
  Answer: B) Candidiasis

Biochemistry

Enzymes

Question 49: The enzyme lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is most active in which metabolic pathway?

• A) Glycolysis
• B) Citric acid cycle
• C) Pentose phosphate pathway
• D) Urea cycle
  Answer: A) Glycolysis

Question 50: Which coenzyme is required by the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase?

• A) NADP+
• B) NAD+
• C) FAD
• D) Coenzyme A
  Answer: D) Coenzyme A

Question 51: Which enzyme is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?

• A) HMG-CoA synthase
• B) HMG-CoA reductase
• C) LDL receptor
• D) Lipase
  Answer: B) HMG-CoA reductase

Carbohydrate Metabolism

Question 52: Which hormone promotes glycogen breakdown in the liver?

• A) Insulin
• B) Glucagon
• C) Cortisol
• D) Aldosterone
  Answer: B) Glucagon

Question 53: Glucose-6-phosphatase is essential in which metabolic pathway?

• A) Glycolysis
• B) Gluconeogenesis
• C) Citric acid cycle
• D) Urea cycle
  Answer: B) Gluconeogenesis

Question 54: Which of the following is an irreversible step in glycolysis?

• A) Hexokinase reaction
• B) Phosphoglycerate kinase reaction
• C) Aldolase reaction
• D) Enolase reaction
  Answer: A) Hexokinase reaction

Physiology

Endocrine Physiology

Question 55: Which hormone is primarily responsible for reducing blood calcium levels?

• A) Parathyroid hormone
• B) Calcitonin
• C) Cortisol
• D) Aldosterone
  Answer: B) Calcitonin

Question 56: The adrenal medulla secretes which of the following hormones?

• A) Cortisol
• B) Aldosterone
• C) Epinephrine
• D) Testosterone
  Answer: C) Epinephrine

Question 57: Which hormone is known as the “stress hormone”?

• A) Insulin
• B) Cortisol
• C) Thyroxine
• D) ADH
  Answer: B) Cortisol

Reproductive Physiology

Question 58: The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is dominated by which hormone?

• A) Estrogen
• B) Progesterone
• C) FSH
• D) LH
  Answer: B) Progesterone

Question 59: Spermatogenesis takes place in which part of the testes?

• A) Epididymis
• B) Seminiferous tubules
• C) Leydig cells
• D) Sertoli cells
  Answer: B) Seminiferous tubules

Question 60: Ovulation is triggered by a surge in which hormone?

• A) Progesterone
• B) FSH
• C) Estrogen
• D) LH
  Answer: D) LH

Microbiology

Bacteriology

Question 61: Which bacteria is known to cause “whooping cough”?

• A) Streptococcus pyogenes
• B) Haemophilus influenzae
• C) Bordetella pertussis
• D) Neisseria meningitidis
  Answer: C) Bordetella pertussis

Question 62: Which bacterial structure is primarily involved in adhesion to host cells?

• A) Cell wall
• B) Ribosome
• C) Pili
• D) Nucleus
  Answer: C) Pili

Question 63: Which of the following bacteria is acid-fast?

• A) Escherichia coli
• B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
• C) Salmonella typhi
• D) Staphylococcus aureus
  Answer: B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Virology

Question 64: Which virus is associated with cervical cancer?

• A) Epstein-Barr virus
• B) Herpes simplex virus
• C) Human papillomavirus
• D) Cytomegalovirus
  Answer: C) Human papillomavirus

Question 65: Hepatitis C virus primarily spreads through:

• A) Fecal-oral transmission
• B) Blood and bodily fluids
• C) Respiratory droplets
• D) Contaminated food
  Answer: B) Blood and bodily fluids

Question 66: Which virus is commonly responsible for mononucleosis?

• A) Epstein-Barr virus
• B) Cytomegalovirus
• C) Hepatitis B virus
• D) Human papillomavirus
  Answer: A) Epstein-Barr virus

Biochemistry

Lipids

Question 67: The main storage form of lipids in the human body is:

• A) Phospholipids
• B) Cholesterol
• C) Triglycerides
• D) Fatty acids
  Answer: C) Triglycerides

Question 68: Beta-oxidation of fatty acids occurs in which cellular organelle?

• A) Cytoplasm
• B) Mitochondria
• C) Endoplasmic reticulum
• D) Golgi apparatus
  Answer: B) Mitochondria

Question 69: Which enzyme is involved in the digestion of lipids in the small intestine?

• A) Amylase
• B) Lipase
• C) Protease
• D) Nuclease
  Answer: B) Lipase

Amino Acids and Proteins

Question 70: The amino acid tryptophan is a precursor for which neurotransmitter?

• A) Dopamine
• B) Serotonin
• C) GABA
• D) Acetylcholine
  Answer: B) Serotonin

Question 71: Which amino acid is considered essential?

• A) Glycine
• B) Cysteine
• C) Tryptophan
• D) Serine
  Answer: C) Tryptophan

Question 72: Hemoglobin is a protein that primarily functions in:

• A) Digestion of food
• B) Transport of oxygen
• C) Transmission of nerve impulses
• D) Clotting of blood
  Answer: B) Transport of oxygen

Physiology

Cardiovascular Physiology

Question 73: The primary pacemaker of the heart is the:

• A) AV node
• B) SA node
• C) Bundle of His
• D) Purkinje fibers
  Answer: B) SA node

Question 74: Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining blood pressure?

• A) Cardiac output
• B) Peripheral resistance
• C) Blood viscosity
• D) Lung capacity
  Answer: D) Lung capacity

Question 75: The Frank-Starling law states that the force of cardiac contraction is directly proportional to:

• A) Heart rate
• B) Blood pressure
• C) Venous return
• D) Stroke volume
  Answer: C) Venous return

Muscle Physiology

Question 76: Which ion is directly involved in initiating muscle contraction?

• A) Sodium
• B) Calcium
• C) Potassium
• D) Chloride
  Answer: B) Calcium

Question 77: Muscle fatigue is often caused by the accumulation of which metabolite?

• A) Glucose
• B) Lactic acid
• C) Urea
• D) ATP
  Answer: B) Lactic acid

Question 78: Skeletal muscle contraction is regulated by the neurotransmitter:

• A) Dopamine
• B) Serotonin
• C) Acetylcholine
• D) GABA
  Answer: C) Acetylcholine

Pathology

Neuropathology

Question 79: Which neurodegenerative disease is characterized by amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles?

• A) Parkinson’s disease
• B) Alzheimer’s disease
• C) Multiple sclerosis
• D) Huntington’s disease
  Answer: B) Alzheimer’s disease

Question 80: Parkinson’s disease primarily affects which neurotransmitter?

• A) Serotonin
• B) GABA
• C) Dopamine
• D) Acetylcholine
  Answer: C) Dopamine

Question 81: Which of the following is a demyelinating disease?

• A) Alzheimer’s disease
• B) Multiple sclerosis
• C) Huntington’s disease
• D) Parkinson’s disease
  Answer: B) Multiple sclerosis

Endocrine Pathology

Question 82: Diabetes insipidus is primarily caused by a deficiency of:

• A) Insulin
• B) ADH
• C) Glucagon
• D) Aldosterone
  Answer: B) ADH

Question 83: Cushing syndrome is associated with excessive production of:

• A) Cortisol
• B) Insulin
• C) Thyroxine
• D) Growth hormone
  Answer: A) Cortisol

Question 84: Graves’ disease is most commonly associated with:

• A) Hyperthyroidism
• B) Hypothyroidism
• C) Diabetes
• D) Addison’s disease
  Answer: A) Hyperthyroidism

Pharmacology

Antidiabetic Drugs

Question 85: Metformin primarily acts by:

• A) Stimulating insulin release
• B) Decreasing hepatic glucose production
• C) Increasing glucagon secretion
• D) Enhancing glucose absorption in the intestine
  Answer: B) Decreasing hepatic glucose production

Question 86: Which of the following drugs is a rapid-acting insulin?

• A) Glargine
• B) Lispro
• C) NPH insulin
• D) Detemir
  Answer: B) Lispro

Question 87: Sulfonylureas act by:

• A) Increasing insulin sensitivity
• B) Stimulating pancreatic beta cells to release insulin
• C) Decreasing glucose absorption in the intestine
• D) Reducing hepatic glucose production
  Answer: B) Stimulating pancreatic beta cells to release insulin

Chemotherapy Drugs

Question 88: Which of the following drugs is a common side effect of cisplatin?

• A) Ototoxicity
• B) Hepatotoxicity
• C) Retinopathy
• D) Pulmonary fibrosis
  Answer: A) Ototoxicity

Question 89: Methotrexate acts by inhibiting which enzyme?

• A) Thymidylate synthase
• B) Dihydrofolate reductase
• C) DNA polymerase
• D) Topoisomerase
  Answer: B) Dihydrofolate reductase

Question 90: Which of the following is an alkylating agent?

• A) Cisplatin
• B) Paclitaxel
• C) Doxorubicin
• D) Methotrexate
  Answer: A) Cisplatin

Anatomy

Musculoskeletal System

Question 91: The largest bone in the human body is:

• A) Femur
• B) Tibia
• C) Humerus
• D) Radius
  Answer: A) Femur

Question 92: The rotator cuff muscles include all EXCEPT:

• A) Supraspinatus
• B) Infraspinatus
• C) Teres minor
• D) Pectoralis major
  Answer: D) Pectoralis major

Question 93: Which structure in the knee acts as a cushion between the femur and tibia?

• A) Meniscus
• B) Ligament
• C) Bursa
• D) Synovium
  Answer: A) Meniscus

Reproductive Anatomy

Question 94: The site of fertilization in the female reproductive system is typically:

• A) Uterus
• B) Cervix
• C) Fallopian tube
• D) Ovary
  Answer: C) Fallopian tube

Question 95: Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum?

• A) Estrogen
• B) Progesterone
• C) LH
• D) FSH
  Answer: B) Progesterone

Question 96: The primary function of the testes is to:

• A) Produce testosterone
• B) Produce estrogen
• C) Store sperm
• D) Transport sperm
  Answer: A) Produce testosterone

Physiology

Gastrointestinal Physiology

Question 97: The primary site of nutrient absorption in the digestive system is the:

• A) Stomach
• B) Large intestine
• C) Small intestine
• D) Esophagus
  Answer: C) Small intestine

Question 98: Bile is produced in the:

• A) Pancreas
• B) Liver
• C) Gallbladder
• D) Small intestine
  Answer: B) Liver

Question 99: Which of the following stimulates the release of gastric acid in the stomach?

• A) Secretin
• B) Cholecystokinin
• C) Gastrin
• D) Pepsin
  Answer: C) Gastrin

Renal Physiology

Question 100: The primary driving force for filtration in the glomerulus is:

• A) Oncotic pressure
• B) Blood pressure
• C) Osmotic pressure
• D) Hydrostatic pressure
  Answer: B) Blood pressure