Anatomy

Cardiovascular System

Question 1: Which structure prevents backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium?

• A) Aortic valve
• B) Mitral valve
• C) Pulmonary valve
• D) Tricuspid valve
  Answer: B) Mitral valve

Question 2: The sinoatrial node is located in which part of the heart?

• A) Right atrium
• B) Left atrium
• C) Right ventricle
• D) Left ventricle
  Answer: A) Right atrium

Question 3: Which artery supplies blood to the left ventricle?

• A) Left anterior descending artery
• B) Right coronary artery
• C) Circumflex artery
• D) Pulmonary artery
  Answer: A) Left anterior descending artery

Nervous System

Question 4: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for:

• A) Sensory perception
• B) Motor coordination
• C) Visual processing
• D) Language comprehension
  Answer: B) Motor coordination

Question 5: Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

• A) Trigeminal (V)
• B) Facial (VII)
• C) Vagus (X)
• D) Hypoglossal (XII)
  Answer: B) Facial (VII)

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT a part of the brainstem?

• A) Medulla oblongata
• B) Pons
• C) Thalamus
• D) Midbrain
  Answer: C) Thalamus

Physiology

Respiratory Physiology

Question 7: Which gas has the most significant effect on the respiratory drive in healthy individuals?

• A) Oxygen
• B) Carbon dioxide
• C) Nitrogen
• D) Carbon monoxide
  Answer: B) Carbon dioxide

Question 8: Surfactant production in the lungs begins during which week of gestation?

• A) 12 weeks
• B) 20 weeks
• C) 26 weeks
• D) 32 weeks
  Answer: C) 26 weeks

Question 9: Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for the control of breathing?

• A) Thalamus
• B) Hypothalamus
• C) Medulla oblongata
• D) Cerebellum
  Answer: C) Medulla oblongata

Renal Physiology

Question 10: Aldosterone acts primarily on which part of the nephron?

• A) Proximal convoluted tubule
• B) Distal convoluted tubule
• C) Loop of Henle
• D) Collecting duct
  Answer: B) Distal convoluted tubule

Question 11: The primary site of filtration in the kidney is:

• A) Bowman’s capsule
• B) Loop of Henle
• C) Distal tubule
• D) Collecting duct
  Answer: A) Bowman’s capsule

Question 12: Which hormone is responsible for increasing water reabsorption in the collecting duct?

• A) ADH
• B) Renin
• C) Aldosterone
• D) ANP
  Answer: A) ADH

Pathology

Cardiovascular Pathology

Question 13: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of rheumatic heart disease?

• A) Myocardial infarction
• B) Valvular stenosis and regurgitation
• C) Aortic aneurysm
• D) Pulmonary embolism
  Answer: B) Valvular stenosis and regurgitation

Question 14: Atherosclerosis typically involves which part of the artery?

• A) Tunica intima
• B) Tunica media
• C) Tunica adventitia
• D) Perivascular tissue
  Answer: A) Tunica intima

Question 15: Which of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

• A) High HDL cholesterol
• B) Low LDL cholesterol
• C) Smoking
• D) High fiber diet
  Answer: C) Smoking

Gastrointestinal Pathology

Question 16: Which of the following is characteristic of Crohn’s disease?

• A) Continuous mucosal inflammation
• B) Granulomas
• C) Absence of skip lesions
• D) Confined to the colon
  Answer: B) Granulomas

Question 17: Hepatitis B virus primarily affects which organ?

• A) Heart
• B) Lungs
• C) Liver
• D) Kidneys
  Answer: C) Liver

Question 18: Which of the following markers is most indicative of acute liver cell injury?

• A) ALT
• B) Albumin
• C) Bilirubin
• D) Alkaline phosphatase
  Answer: A) ALT

Pharmacology

Antibiotics

Question 19: Which antibiotic is known to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

• A) Penicillin
• B) Erythromycin
• C) Amoxicillin
• D) Gentamicin
  Answer: D) Gentamicin

Question 20: Which drug is primarily used for treating MRSA infections?

• A) Amoxicillin
• B) Vancomycin
• C) Ciprofloxacin
• D) Tetracycline
  Answer: B) Vancomycin

Question 21: Which antibiotic class works by inhibiting protein synthesis at the ribosomal level?

• A) Penicillins
• B) Tetracyclines
• C) Cephalosporins
• D) Quinolones
  Answer: B) Tetracyclines

Antifungals

Question 22: Amphotericin B is primarily used to treat which of the following infections?

• A) Bacterial
• B) Viral
• C) Fungal
• D) Protozoal
  Answer: C) Fungal

Question 23: Azoles inhibit the synthesis of which component in fungal cell membranes?

• A) Glucan
• B) Ergosterol
• C) Chitin
• D) Lipopolysaccharide
  Answer: B) Ergosterol

Question 24: Fluconazole is most effective against which of the following?

• A) Candida species
• B) Plasmodium falciparum
• C) Staphylococcus aureus
• D) E. coli
  Answer: A) Candida species

Microbiology

Bacteriology

Question 25: Which Gram-positive cocci is known for its resistance to methicillin?

• A) Streptococcus pyogenes
• B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
• C) Staphylococcus aureus
• D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  Answer: C) Staphylococcus aureus

Question 26: Which bacterium is commonly associated with peptic ulcer disease?

• A) Salmonella typhi
• B) Helicobacter pylori
• C) Escherichia coli
• D) Shigella dysenteriae
  Answer: B) Helicobacter pylori

Question 27: The primary route of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:

• A) Fecal-oral
• B) Sexual contact
• C) Respiratory droplets
• D) Vector-borne
  Answer: C) Respiratory droplets

Virology

Question 28: The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which type of cancer?

• A) Lung cancer
• B) Colorectal cancer
• C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
• D) Ovarian cancer
  Answer: C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Question 29: Which of the following viruses is a common cause of bronchiolitis in infants?

• A) Influenza virus
• B) Respiratory syncytial virus
• C) Adenovirus
• D) Rotavirus
  Answer: B) Respiratory syncytial virus

Question 30: Varicella-zoster virus remains latent in which type of tissue?

• A) Lymphoid tissue
• B) Bone marrow
• C) Sensory ganglia
• D) Liver cells
  Answer: C) Sensory ganglia